~ Something to Think About ~
שופטים פרשת
Parsha Stumpers
By: Daniel Listhaus
- (16:21) The Medrash Rabbah says that Shlomo
HaMelech's throne had 6 steps leading up to it. On each step was one of
six consecutive לא תעשה found in this week's parsha. What are
they and what is the connection between them? (see Kli Yakar)
- (17:18) There are three important dinim
pertaining to a melech. What are they and where is there a remez to
them in the word כסא – as if to say that a king who keeps these three
things will merit to stay on the כסא ? (see Kli
Yakar)
- (16:22) Rashi explains that Hashem despises
things which goyim use for avoda zarah. If this is so, why
are we allowed to have a mizbe'ach? Why are we allowed to pray?
Where do the liens get drawn?
- (17:6) Rashi writes that if three witnesses come
to testify, they do not become eidim zomemin until all three of
them become zomemin. Why should this be true?
- How could we even understand the din of eidim
zomemin? They never even completed the evil they intended to do!?
- (17:11) Rashi comments on the passuk that
we must listen to the chachomim even if he says right is left and
left is right. If I know that right is indeed not left, then why should I
listen to the words of the chochom? What is the fundamental
difference between this law and the one regarding not following a navi
sheker (18:22)?
- (18:10) Rashi understands the passuk as
forbidding various types of superstitious activities. (a) Rabbi Akiva
explains “me’onain” as people who assign seasons by saying that certain
times are more propitious for certain things. Isn’t this something that we
do? For example, we say that Adar is a good time to have a court case? (b)
Rashi explains “menacheish” as one who makes decisions based on
occurrences such as bread falling or a deer blocking the road or one’s
staff dropping from his hand. Yet the Gemara Berachos relates a
story in a mishna of a tanna who would know when his tefillos would
be answered based on the fluency it came from his mouth?
- (18:20) Rashi writes based on the passuk
that it is assur to say things in the name of a different god even
to permit something which is permitted according to Torah or to forbid
something which the Torah itself forbids. (a) What is wrong with doing
this? Why can’t it just be a creative way to motivate people to keep the mitzvos?
(b) Rashi gets this from the mishna
in Sanhedrin (89a) however, for some reason the example that the
mishna offers is that this is assur even if one is saying something is
pure (tahor) which actually is tahor, or tamei what is in fact tamei. Why
does Rashi change the example in chumash from what the mishna states? (c)
As a historical example, the gemara on 89a says “Such as was with the neviei
ha’ba’al” – referring to those in navi who claimed to be prophets of a
“god baal”. Why would the gemara bring such a case in point if in that is
not a case of saying a correct halacha from an invalid source? (d) The
Ramban, seems to address all these questions by saying that the issur
referred to here in the Torah is
merely to prohibit calling a different entity a “god”. If so why do we
need the wordiness and examples of the mishna and gemara in sahnedrin? And
how is this issur different than the classic issur of not serving avodah
zarrah which would presumably include this?
- (20:3) Rashi points out that the Torah lists four
times not to be afraid of an enemy during war based on the noise it makes
– whether it be the collision of shields, the stamping of the horses
hooves and their neighing, the sound of their horns, and the enemy’s shouting.
Why does the Torah need to write four warnings to include each of these
specific scary noises? Why not just tell us not to be afraid?
- (20:8) Rashi brings down a machlokes ta’naim
regarding who the Torah is referring to when it mentions someone who is “fearful
and fainthearted” of going to war. R’ Akiva holds that it refers to
someone who can’t stand in war and see a sword drawn in front of him or
have to hit someone. R’ Yose Haglili holds that it refers to someone who
did aveiros and is therefore afraid that by entering war he is likely to
die. (a) Why is the Torah’s response to such a person that he doesn’t have
to go to battle? He should do teshuva and then go to battle? Why does the
torah have rachmanus on someone who must not only realize that he sinned
but also understands the severity and the hashkafa that “it isn’t the
sword which kills but rather the sin that kills”. ? (b) According to R’ Yose Haglili, Rashi has a
good follow up explanation as to why the Torah allows someone who just
started a house, business, or family to be patur from war – in order
to be a distraction for the sinner not to be embarrassed and singled out.
However, Rashi doesn’t explain why these three categories of people were arbitrarily
chosen as opposed to all butchers, bakers, and candlestick makers? (c)
According to R’ Akiva, what reason is there at all for these people to be pattur?
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